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Connecticut

Below is a comprehensive study guide plus 100 multiple‑choice practice questions tailored for the Connecticut Adjuster Licensing Exam (especially the All‑Lines Casualty Adjuster exam). These questions cover the major topic areas you’ll be tested on, based on official exam content outlines and common industry subjects. 

Study Questions

  1. Who oversees the regulation of insurance in Connecticut?
    A) State Attorney General
    B) State Comptroller
    C) Insurance Commissioner
    D) Department of Public Health
    Answer: C) Insurance Commissioner

  2. Which of the following is required to become a licensed adjuster in Connecticut?
    A) Be at least 21 years old
    B) Have a law degree
    C) Be at least 18 years old
    D) Have 2 years of industry experience
    Answer: C) Be at least 18 years old

  3. Connecticut requires adjuster licenses to be renewed every:
    A) Year
    B) 2 years
    C) 3 years
    D) 5 years
    Answer: B) 2 years

  4. What is the minimum number of continuing education (CE) hours required every license cycle in Connecticut?
    A) 12 hours
    B) 18 hours
    C) 24 hours
    D) 30 hours
    Answer: C) 24 hours

  5. If an adjuster violates Connecticut’s Unfair Claims Practices Act, the Commissioner may:
    A) File criminal charges only
    B) Suspend or revoke the license and impose fines
    C) Refer the case to the Attorney General only
    D) Take no action unless fraud is proven
    Answer: B) Suspend or revoke the license and impose fines

  6. Which of the following is considered an unfair claims practice in Connecticut?
    A) Paying a claim within policy limits
    B) Conducting a full investigation
    C) Denying claims without a reasonable investigation
    D) Communicating regularly with claimants
    Answer: C) Denying claims without a reasonable investigation

  7. Adjusters must acknowledge receipt of a claim in Connecticut within:
    A) 30 days
    B) 15 business days
    C) 10 calendar days
    D) 5 business days
    Answer: B) 15 business days

  8. How long does an insurer have to pay a claim after all forms are completed and submitted in Connecticut?
    A) 15 days
    B) 20 business days
    C) 30 calendar days
    D) 45 days
    Answer: C) 30 calendar days

  9. If an adjuster’s license is revoked in Connecticut, when can they reapply?
    A) Immediately
    B) After 30 days
    C) After 1 year
    D) Never
    Answer: C) After 1 year

  10. An adjuster who knowingly misrepresents material facts to a claimant has committed:
    A) A civil offense only
    B) An act of negligence
    C) Fraud and unfair claims practice
    D) Ethical error
    Answer: C) Fraud and unfair claims practice

  11. Connecticut law requires adjusters to conduct business with:
    A) Expediency and minimal documentation
    B) Accuracy and fairness
    C) Aggressiveness and risk-taking
    D) Policyholder loyalty above all
    Answer: B) Accuracy and fairness

  12. Failing to affirm or deny coverage within a reasonable time is a violation of:
    A) Tort law
    B) The Insurance Licensing Act
    C) The Unfair Claims Practices Act
    D) The Connecticut Constitution
    Answer: C) The Unfair Claims Practices Act

  13. To obtain a non-resident adjuster license in Connecticut, an applicant must:
    A) Reside in Connecticut
    B) Take the Connecticut state exam
    C) Hold a license in good standing in their home state
    D) Work for a Connecticut-based insurer
    Answer: C) Hold a license in good standing in their home state

  14. An adjuster may be exempt from continuing education if they:
    A) Are over 65 years old
    B) Are only licensed in one line
    C) Maintain a license for fewer than 2 years
    D) Are newly licensed within the current cycle
    Answer: D) Are newly licensed within the current cycle

  15. In Connecticut, adjusters must keep records of transactions for at least:
    A) 1 year
    B) 2 years
    C) 3 years
    D) 5 years
    Answer: C) 3 years

  16. If an adjuster changes their address, they must notify the Commissioner within:
    A) 30 days
    B) 60 days
    C) 10 days
    D) 5 business days
    Answer: A) 30 days

  17. What is the penalty for adjusting claims without a license in Connecticut?
    A) No penalty if working for an insurer
    B) Warning only
    C) Fines and possible imprisonment
    D) Probation period
    Answer: C) Fines and possible imprisonment

  18. When does a Connecticut adjuster’s license expire?
    A) Every June 30
    B) Biennially on the license anniversary
    C) December 31 of odd-numbered years
    D) January 1 of even-numbered years
    Answer: B) Biennially on the license anniversary

  19. An adjuster has a fiduciary responsibility to:
    A) Their employer only
    B) The policyholder
    C) The public and all parties involved
    D) The Insurance Commissioner exclusively
    Answer: C) The public and all parties involved

  20. Connecticut allows emergency adjusters to operate without a license for:
    A) 10 days
    B) 30 days
    C) 60 days
    D) Duration of the emergency declaration
    Answer: D) Duration of the emergency declaration

  21. Which of the following would NOT be grounds for license denial in Connecticut?
    A) Felony conviction
    B) Falsified application
    C) Outstanding parking tickets
    D) Previous license revocation
    Answer: C) Outstanding parking tickets

  22. Connecticut considers it an unfair practice if an insurer requires claimants to:
    A) Submit proof of loss
    B) Pay for legal representation
    C) Travel unreasonably far to get a claim paid
    D) Use the insurer’s own appraiser
    Answer: C) Travel unreasonably far to get a claim paid

  23. All of the following are required duties of an adjuster EXCEPT:
    A) Investigate claims
    B) Represent the insured in legal proceedings
    C) Evaluate damages
    D) Communicate settlement offers
    Answer: B) Represent the insured in legal proceedings

  24. The purpose of Connecticut’s Unfair Insurance Practices Act is to:
    A) Promote competition
    B) Protect insurers
    C) Penalize brokers
    D) Protect the public from deceptive practices
    Answer: D) Protect the public from deceptive practices

  25. An adjuster who handles both property and casualty claims in Connecticut must:
    A) Hold a separate license for each
    B) File for federal approval
    C) Pass the All-Lines Adjuster exam
    D) Be employed directly by a law firm
    Answer: C) Pass the All-Lines Adjuster exam

 

SECTION III — Property Insurance (51–75)

 

 

  1. A basic dwelling policy (DP-1) provides coverage on a:
    A) Named peril basis
    B) Open peril basis
    C) Replacement cost basis
    D) Blanket basis
    Answer: A) Named peril basis

  2. Which of the following is NOT typically covered under a standard homeowners policy?
    A) Fire
    B) Windstorm
    C) Earthquake
    D) Vandalism
    Answer: C) Earthquake

  3. The HO-3 (Special Form) policy provides:
    A) Named peril coverage on both dwelling and personal property
    B) Open peril on dwelling, named peril on personal property
    C) Open peril on both dwelling and personal property
    D) Liability only
    Answer: B) Open peril on dwelling, named peril on personal property

  4. Under a homeowners policy, personal property is typically covered at:
    A) Replacement cost
    B) Actual cash value
    C) Market value
    D) Loan balance
    Answer: B) Actual cash value

  5. Which loss valuation method includes depreciation?
    A) Replacement cost
    B) Stated amount
    C) Actual cash value
    D) Agreed value
    Answer: C) Actual cash value

  6. In a commercial property policy, the Building and Personal Property coverage form (BPP) includes coverage for:
    A) Earth movement
    B) Outdoor fences
    C) Completed additions
    D) Employee dishonesty
    Answer: C) Completed additions

  7. What is the purpose of the co-insurance clause in commercial property insurance?
    A) Provide unlimited coverage
    B) Encourage underinsurance
    C) Share the loss with other insurers
    D) Encourage insurance to value
    Answer: D) Encourage insurance to value

  8. Which endorsement extends coverage to include backup of sewers or drains?
    A) Ordinance or Law
    B) Watercraft Endorsement
    C) Backup and Overflow Endorsement
    D) Increased Limit Endorsement
    Answer: C) Backup and Overflow Endorsement

  9. A “scheduled” property endorsement is used to:
    A) Increase dwelling coverage
    B) Provide open-peril coverage
    C) List high-value items individually
    D) Extend liability to business activities
    Answer: C) List high-value items individually

  10. Under homeowners insurance, “Coverage B – Other Structures” includes:
    A) Main dwelling only
    B) Detached garages and sheds
    C) Personal property
    D) Loss of use
    Answer: B) Detached garages and sheds

  11. Which homeowners form is specifically designed for renters?
    A) HO-1
    B) HO-2
    C) HO-4
    D) HO-6
    Answer: C) HO-4

  12. Which HO policy is best suited for a condo owner?
    A) HO-2
    B) HO-3
    C) HO-4
    D) HO-6
    Answer: D) HO-6

  13. In property insurance, the term “endorsement” refers to:
    A) A policy deductible
    B) A mandatory claim step
    C) An addition or modification to a policy
    D) A type of peril
    Answer: C) An addition or modification to a policy

  14. Which peril is commonly excluded from most property policies without special endorsement?
    A) Hail
    B) Lightning
    C) Earthquake
    D) Fire
    Answer: C) Earthquake

  15. “Loss of Use” coverage in a homeowners policy provides:
    A) Liability protection
    B) Temporary relocation expenses
    C) Medical payments to others
    D) Rebuilding costs
    Answer: B) Temporary relocation expenses

  16. What is the purpose of the “Ordinance or Law” endorsement?
    A) Provide flood coverage
    B) Cover legal expenses from liability claims
    C) Cover increased costs due to updated building codes
    D) Cover sewer backup
    Answer: C) Cover increased costs due to updated building codes

  17. The automatic limit for Coverage D – Loss of Use in HO-3 is typically:
    A) 10% of Coverage A
    B) 20% of Coverage A
    C) 30% of Coverage A
    D) 50% of Coverage A
    Answer: C) 30% of Coverage A

  18. Which of the following would be covered under Coverage C – Personal Property?
    A) Detached garage
    B) Living room furniture
    C) In-ground swimming pool
    D) Roof shingles
    Answer: B) Living room furniture

  19. Which homeowner form offers the broadest coverage?
    A) HO-1
    B) HO-2
    C) HO-3
    D) HO-5
    Answer: D) HO-5

  20. Under homeowners insurance, trees, shrubs, and plants are usually covered for:
    A) The full policy limit
    B) Fire only
    C) 5% of Coverage A
    D) 10% of Coverage C
    Answer: C) 5% of Coverage A

  21. A personal articles floater is designed to:
    A) Insure business property
    B) Cover high-value personal items individually
    C) Replace dwelling coverage
    D) Extend auto coverage
    Answer: B) Cover high-value personal items individually

  22. Replacement Cost coverage requires the insured to carry insurance equal to at least:
    A) 50% of the building value
    B) 60% of the market value
    C) 80% of the replacement cost
    D) 100% of the purchase price
    Answer: C) 80% of the replacement cost

  23. Which of the following is NOT a typical exclusion under a homeowners policy?
    A) War
    B) Intentional damage
    C) Flood
    D) Theft
    Answer: D) Theft

  24. Coverage A in a homeowners policy refers to:
    A) Personal property
    B) Other structures
    C) The dwelling
    D) Medical payments
    Answer: C) The dwelling

  25. Which type of policy is best suited for a landlord renting out a single-family home?
    A) HO-2
    B) DP-3
    C) HO-4
    D) HO-6
    Answer: B) DP-3

 

 

SECTION IV — Automobile Insurance (76–100)

 

 

  1. Which part of a Personal Auto Policy (PAP) pays for damage to the insured’s own car resulting from a collision?
    A) Comprehensive Coverage
    B) Medical Payments
    C) Collision Coverage
    D) Liability Coverage
    Answer: C) Collision Coverage

  2. Which part of the PAP covers theft, fire, hail, and vandalism?
    A) Collision
    B) Uninsured Motorist
    C) Comprehensive (Other Than Collision)
    D) Medical Payments
    Answer: C) Comprehensive (Other Than Collision)

  3. Which auto coverage is mandatory in Connecticut?
    A) Comprehensive
    B) Collision
    C) Liability and Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist
    D) Towing and Labor
    Answer: C) Liability and Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist

  4. What does liability insurance cover?
    A) Damage to the insured’s car
    B) The insured’s injuries
    C) Property damage or bodily injury the insured causes to others
    D) Roadside assistance
    Answer: C) Property damage or bodily injury the insured causes to others

  5. Under the PAP, how is a “covered auto” defined?
    A) Any car listed in the policy only
    B) Only vehicles with a lien
    C) Vehicles named on the policy or acquired during the policy period
    D) Rental vehicles only
    Answer: C) Vehicles named on the policy or acquired during the policy period

  6. In Connecticut, the minimum required limits for auto liability insurance are:
    A) 20/40/10
    B) 25/50/25
    C) 30/60/15
    D) 50/100/25
    Answer: B) 25/50/25
    ($25,000 per person, $50,000 per accident bodily injury, $25,000 property damage)

  7. The part of an auto policy that pays regardless of fault for injuries to the insured or passengers is:
    A) Uninsured Motorist
    B) Medical Payments Coverage
    C) Liability Coverage
    D) Comprehensive
    Answer: B) Medical Payments Coverage

  8. Which of the following would be covered under collision coverage?
    A) Vandalism
    B) Theft
    C) Hitting a parked car
    D) Hail damage
    Answer: C) Hitting a parked car

  9. Uninsured Motorist Coverage pays when:
    A) The insured causes an accident
    B) The other driver has no liability insurance
    C) The insured drives without coverage
    D) A rental car is stolen
    Answer: B) The other driver has no liability insurance

  10. What type of damage would comprehensive coverage NOT pay for?
    A) Theft
    B) Fire
    C) Collision with a tree
    D) Vandalism
    Answer: C) Collision with a tree

  11. A temporary substitute vehicle is:
    A) Not covered under any section
    B) Only covered if rented
    C) Covered as a replacement auto under liability
    D) Covered only for towing
    Answer: C) Covered as a replacement auto under liability

  12. If two auto policies cover the same vehicle, how is liability coverage usually handled?
    A) Primary insurer pays nothing
    B) Coverage is shared equally
    C) Primary/excess rules apply
    D) Only one policy pays
    Answer: C) Primary/excess rules apply

  13. Under the PAP, which of the following is NOT considered an “insured”?
    A) The named insured
    B) A family member using a covered auto
    C) Someone driving the car without permission
    D) Someone driving with permission
    Answer: C) Someone driving the car without permission

  14. Which of the following losses would be excluded under the PAP?
    A) Accident while driving for Uber
    B) Damage to a parked car
    C) Vandalism
    D) Theft
    Answer: A) Accident while driving for Uber
    (Business use like rideshare is excluded unless endorsed)

  15. Which endorsement adds coverage for people who drive for rideshare services?
    A) Extended Vehicle Use
    B) Transportation Network Company (TNC) Endorsement
    C) Commercial Coverage
    D) Garagekeeper’s Form
    Answer: B) Transportation Network Company (TNC) Endorsement

  16. Which coverage pays for a rental car while the insured vehicle is being repaired due to a covered loss?
    A) Towing
    B) Roadside Assistance
    C) Loss of Use
    D) Transportation Expense Coverage
    Answer: D) Transportation Expense Coverage

  17. In a PAP, physical damage coverage includes:
    A) Liability only
    B) Collision and Comprehensive
    C) Roadside assistance
    D) Medical and towing
    Answer: B) Collision and Comprehensive

  18. Who can recover under Uninsured Motorist Coverage?
    A) Anyone involved in an accident
    B) The at-fault party
    C) The insured and passengers injured by an uninsured driver
    D) Property owners near the accident
    Answer: C) The insured and passengers injured by an uninsured driver

  19. What is the purpose of the declarations page in a PAP?
    A) Deny coverage
    B) Show premium discounts
    C) Summarize coverage, limits, and vehicles
    D) Provide a repair estimate
    Answer: C) Summarize coverage, limits, and vehicles

  20. Who determines fault in an auto accident claim?
    A) Court only
    B) Adjuster, based on investigation
    C) Police only
    D) Insurance agent
    Answer: B) Adjuster, based on investigation

  21. Under the PAP, which vehicle would NOT be considered a “covered auto”?
    A) Your newly purchased car
    B) A car listed in the policy
    C) A rental car
    D) A friend’s car borrowed without permission
    Answer: D) A friend’s car borrowed without permission

  22. Stacking Uninsured Motorist Coverage means:
    A) Combining limits from multiple vehicles
    B) Adding rental coverage
    C) Extending coverage to pets
    D) Doubling towing limits
    Answer: A) Combining limits from multiple vehicles

  23. Under Connecticut law, insurers must offer:
    A) Roadside assistance
    B) Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist Coverage
    C) Full replacement value
    D) Rideshare reimbursement
    Answer: B) Uninsured/Underinsured Motorist Coverage

  24. The purpose of the “Other Insurance” clause is to:
    A) Increase the premium
    B) Eliminate duplicate coverage
    C) Clarify when multiple policies apply
    D) Limit liability coverage
    Answer: C) Clarify when multiple policies apply

  25. Which of the following events is typically excluded from auto physical damage coverage?
    A) Fire
    B) Theft
    C) Wear and tear
    D) Falling object
    Answer: C) Wear and tear

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